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PMI-ACP® Practice Exam

PMI-ACP® Sample Quiz

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Question 1
A product has been released to production but a customer has discovered a bug in the code. What type of defect is this?
A
Minor Defect
B
Escaped defect
C
Source Code Defect
D
Discovered Defect
Question 1 Explanation: 
An escape is a defect that wasn
Question 2
A project team are running into bottlenecks while working on stories in iterations. What would be the best solution for addressing this issue?
A
Get team to be generalist
B
Encourage Servant Leaders within team
C
Encourage Team Leaders within team
D
Get more Specialist on team
Question 2 Explanation: 
It is recommended to get the team to be generalists so anyone can pick up any task any avoid bottlenecks. (pg. 203)
Question 3
What best describes ROTI?
A
Measure of Effort Used
B
Determines Quality of Retro
C
Measure of Return
D
Determines ROI in future
Question 3 Explanation: 
Return on Invested Time (ROTI) is used to determine the quality of the retrospective. (pg. 403)
Question 4
Which of the following isn't a collaboration game?
A
Listening Game
B
Collaborative Origami
C
123 Go
D
Plus/Delta
Question 4 Explanation: 
Plus/Delta is in the final stage of closing a retrospective determining what team want more/less in next iteration regarding process. (pg. 403)
Question 5
The team leader has mastered his own feelings by attending a workshop. What stage would be next for them to eventually be able to influence others?
A
Self-Management
B
Social-Skills
C
Self-Awareness
D
Social-Awareness
Question 5 Explanation: 
After understanding ones own feelings next is to manage them and then become more aware of others and finally they will be able to influence others feelings. (pg. 181)
Question 6
Cumulative flow diagram are best used to:
A
Show work completed
B
Cumulative work to completion
C
Identify bottlenecks
D
Demonstrate velocity
Question 6 Explanation: 
A cumulative flow diagram can be used to identify bottlenecks by looking below the widening gap. (pg. 122)
Question 7
Which of the following is crucial when designing a team space?
A
Information Radiators
B
Caves and Common
C
Vending Machine
D
Meeting and Board Rooms
Question 7 Explanation: 
Caves and common area are essential for a team space so the team have caves where they can work in quiet and a common area where knowledge sharing can happen. (pg. 223)
Question 8
The team have under estimated a user story and the developer tasked with the story is new to the team and doesn't want to leave team down by delivering only 6 instead of 10 story points. You are the PO what should you do?
A
Leave team member work overtime
B
Extend the iteration
C
Remove the story from the iteration
D
Complete the 6 points and put 4 in backlog
Question 8 Explanation: 
The correct procedure is to complete the story points in the planned time and then add the remaining work to the backlog so it can be reprioritized. (pg. 301)
Question 9
The project team are using wideband Delphi to estimate user stories. What pitfalls should wideband Delphi not help avoid
A
HIPPO
B
Groupthink
C
Bandwagon
D
Guesstimates
Question 9 Explanation: 
Wideband Delphi is anonymous estimates which minimizes the Bandwagon effect, HIPPO decision making and Groupthink. (pg. 287)
Question 10
What would you not to expect to find on an information radiator?
A
Definition of Done
B
Retrospective findings
C
Burn charts
D
Story Map
Question 10 Explanation: 
Information radiator would not have the definition of done. (pg. 169)
Question 11
What formula demonstrates that the duration of work queue is dependent on its size.
A
Kanban Board
B
Work In Progress
C
Little's Law
D
Theory of constraints
Question 11 Explanation: 
Little's Law demonstrates that the duration of work queue is dependent on its size. (pg. 119)
Question 12
Which question can you not expect answered in the W5H on the Agile Charter?
A
How will it be undertaken
B
How much will it cost
C
What is the project about
D
Who will be engaged
Question 12 Explanation: 
Agile charters typically answer the W5H questions which aren't related to cost. (pg. 154)
Question 13
The Agile triangle of constraints I said to be inverted from traditional triangle because it allows:
A
Cost and time to vary instead of scope
B
Scope and time to vary instead of cost
C
Scope to vary which cost and time fixed
D
Cost to vary which scope and time fixed
Question 13 Explanation: 
In the inverted Agile triangle scope to vary while cost and time are fixed. (pg. 26)
Question 14
Which of the following did Lyssa Adkins not outline as a guideline for one-on-one coaching?
A
Encourage Openness
B
Meet them a half-step ahead
C
Partner with Mangers
D
Guarantee Safety
Question 14 Explanation: 
Lyssa Adkins guidelines for one-on-one coaching are guarantee safety, meet them a half-step ahead, partner with managers and create positive regard (pg. 221)
Question 15
Stories are prioritized in a risk-adjusted backlog based on:
A
Customer Benefit
B
Threats
C
Risk Mitigation
D
EMV
Question 15 Explanation: 
Expected Monetary Value (pg. 346)
Question 16
A new project manger is trying to model her team to be high performing. What team characteristics should she not try mimic?
A
Consensus Driven
B
Constructive Disagreement
C
Self Organizing
D
Motivated by SMART goals
Question 16 Explanation: 
Team members should be motivated by trust nothing else. (pg. 206)
Question 17
Which of the following isn't Five dysfunctions of a team?
A
Fear of Conflict
B
Absence of Trust
C
Inattention to Results
D
Over Commitment
Question 17 Explanation: 
The 5 dysfunctions of a team are Absence of Trust, Fear of Conflict, Inattention to Results, Avoidance of Accountability, Lack of Commitment (pg. 211)
Question 18
There has been a new team member assigned to a team and they discovered a bug. The PO prioritizes bugs based on the 80/20 rule. The team member uses what technique to determine the reason of the bug?
A
Pareto Chart
B
Pair Programming
C
Histogram
D
Fishbone Analysis
Question 18 Explanation: 
Fishbone analysis is used to determine the root cause of an issue. (pg. 400)
Question 19
Which category in Kano Analysis is most important to a delivered product?
A
Satisfiers
B
Indifferent
C
Dissatisfies
D
Delighters
Question 19 Explanation: 
Dissatisfies will cause the customer to dislike a product if they are not present. (pg. 103)
Question 20
A large organization has adopted a Agile approach but has multiple Scrum teams and are struggling with coordinating their across teams. What would you suggest that could solve this?
A
All hands meeting
B
Agile Software
C
Gantt Charts
D
Scrum of Scrums
Question 20 Explanation: 
The Scrum of Scrums is used for multiple scrum teams to coordinate their work. (pg. 44)
Question 21
Which of the following is not a Agile modelling technique:
A
Data Diagram
B
Flow Diagram
C
Screen Designs
D
Use Cases
Question 21 Explanation: 
Agile modelling techniques are use cases - data diagram - screen designs (pg. 158)
Question 22
The retrospective and daily stand up meeting are best described as a:
A
Business Meeting
B
Agile Meeting
C
Process Meetings
D
Time boxing Meeting
Question 22 Explanation: 
The retrospective and daily stand up are time boxed meetings. (pg. 259)
Question 23
Gold plating is an example of which of the 7 wastes of lean?
A
Partially done work
B
Extra Processes
C
Extra Feature
D
Task Switching
Question 23 Explanation: 
Gold plating is a extra feature. (pg. 56)
Question 24
Which of the following is not a Lean core concept?
A
Manage flow
B
Defer decisions
C
Eliminate waste
D
Deliver fast
Question 24 Explanation: 
Manage flow is a Kanban principle. (pg. 55)
Question 25
High performing team would be expected to have all the following characteristics except:
A
Set Realistic Goals
B
Strong Leadership
C
13-15 generalists
D
Shared Vision
Question 25 Explanation: 
Team size in Agile should be no more than 12 (pg. 203)
Question 26
When it comes to customer valued prioritization in Agile which of the following is not tool used to keep track of customer priorities?
A
Product Backlog
B
Customer Priority Backlog
C
Feature List
D
Prioritized Requirements List
Question 26 Explanation: 
Scrum has "product backlog", FDD has "feature list" and DSDM has a "prioritized requirements list". Customer priority backlog is made up. (pg. 101)
Question 27
Kouzes and Posner did a 10 year study interviewing 75,000 people about leadership characteristics, value and traits they admire. What was not in the highest rated responses?
A
Forward-looking
B
Inspiring
C
Honesty
D
Technical Skills
Question 27 Explanation: 
Leaders don't need to have strong technical skills. (pg. 72)
Question 28
The team lead wants to communicate the iteration goals to all stakeholders in a project. What communication model would you recommend they use to best ensure the goals are communicated and understood?
A
Informal
B
Dispatch
C
Two Way
D
Face-to-face
Question 28 Explanation: 
Two way communication model ensures information is bidirectional. Face-to-face is not a communication model. (pg. 164)
Question 29
The PO wants to monitor when the iteration velocity can have a negative impact on the release date. Which tool can help him identify this?
A
Control Limits
B
Velocity Monitor
C
Variance Analysis
D
Trend Analysis
Question 29 Explanation: 
Control Charts are used to monitor the velocity. If the iteration velocity is below the expected velocity it can delay the release control charts set lower and upper limits monitoring the velocity. (pg. 343)
Question 30
What is the optimal Agile team size?
A
20
B
12
C
6
D
14
Question 30 Explanation: 
The optimal team size is 12 people. (pg. 205)
Question 31
In test-driven development what is the correct sequence of activities?
A
Write test, refactor, write code
B
Write code, write test, refactor
C
Write code, refactor, write test
D
Write test, write code, refactor
Question 31 Explanation: 
The correct sequence for test driven development is Write test, write code, refactor (pg. 134)
Question 32
the team are in the middle of the estimation process and the Scrum Master has decided that not everyone in the room has the correct information at hand. Agile knowledge sharing is designed to:
A
Maximize resources
B
Get accurate estimates
C
Leverage electronics
D
Make information available
Question 32 Explanation: 
Agile knowledge sharing is designed to make information available. (pg. 165)
Question 33
The project team has recently started using Kanban but never set any WIP as the company director insisted the more work the team can work in progress the better. This decision will not result in what?
A
Hide Rework
B
Higher Throughput
C
Higher Risk
D
Hide Bottlenecks
Question 33 Explanation: 
Setting WIP helps identify bottlenecks, rework needed and lowers risk. (pg. 115)
Question 34
What is not a disadvantage of continuous integration?
A
Setup time to establish build server
B
Cost of procuring machine build server
C
Integration problems are fixed
D
Time required to build tests
Question 34 Explanation: 
Integration problems are fixed is a benefit of continuous integration. (pg. 133)
Question 35
A project sponsor has been asked to choose between project A which will return $150,000 over 18 months and project B which will return $450,000 over 3 years. What is the best approach to select a project?
A
Calculate ROI and choose lowest
B
Calculate ROI and choose highest
C
Calculate NPV and choose highest
D
Calculate NPV and choose lowest
Question 35 Explanation: 
Net Present Value is used to calculate the amount in todays terms. The higher the better value. (pg. 89)
Question 36
If the CPI is high and the SPI is low the project is:
A
Ahead schedule, under budget
B
Behind schedule, over budget
C
Behind schedule, under budget
D
Behind schedule, over budget
Question 36 Explanation: 
CPI is high and the SPI is low the project is behind schedule, under budget. (pg. 94)
Question 37
What is not a Scrum artefact?
A
Product increment
B
Sprint backlog
C
User Story
D
Product backlog
Question 37 Explanation: 
There are 3 Scrum artefacts the product increment, product backlog and sprint backlog. (pg. 46)
Question 38
Which of the following is not a Agile coaching style?
A
Coaching
B
Training
C
Supporting
D
Mentoring
Question 38 Explanation: 
The 3 Agile coaching styles are Training, Coaching and Mentoring (pg219)
Question 39
What is not a component in continuous integration?
A
Schedulers
B
Unit testing
C
Build tools
D
Test tools
Question 39 Explanation: 
Continuous integration components include source code control system, build tools, test tools, scheduler/trigger, notifications. (pg. 132)
Question 40
Which of the following is the correct collection of Crystal colours?
A
Clear, Yellow, Orange, Red, Magenta
B
Yellow, Orange, Red, Green
C
Amber, Orange, Red, Green
D
Clear, Green, Orange, Red, Magenta
Question 40 Explanation: 
The colours used ion Crystal are Clear, Yellow, Orange, Red, Magenta. (pg. 65)
Question 41
According to the Agile Manifesto individuals and interactions are preferred over:
A
Customer Collaboration
B
Processes and tools
C
Following a plan
D
Comprehensive documentation
Question 41 Explanation: 
In the Agile Manifesto it promotes individuals and interactions over processes and tools. (pg. 28)
Question 42
A company has been using Agile for over 9 months. When should a company stop tailoring the process?
A
Never
B
18 months
C
Shu-Ra-Ri
D
12 months
Question 42 Explanation: 
A true Agile company will understand tailoring the process is a continuous task. (pg. 389)
Question 43
David Anderson introduced an Agile practice for development from Kanban, which of the following isn't one?
A
Sort
B
Set in Order
C
Suspend
D
Shine
Question 43 Explanation: 
5'S are Set in order, sort, shine, standardize, sustain (pg. 370)
Question 44
A set of features have been drafted and next step is to prioritize the list. Whose responsibility is this?
A
Stakeholder
B
Scrum Master
C
Product Owner
D
Project Team
Question 44 Explanation: 
High level planning is the Product Owner and business responsibility. (pg. 291)
Question 45
The team leader is empowering the team members to solve the issue themselves. What level of conflict is this?
A
Level 2
B
Level 4
C
Level 3
D
Level 1
Question 45 Explanation: 
To solve level 2 disagreements it is best to empower the team members to solve it themselves. (pg. 184)
Question 46
A DSDM Contract focuses on
A
Collaboration over negotiation
B
Work being fit for business use
C
Reduces cost of change
D
A win-win situation
Question 46 Explanation: 
A DSDM Contract focuses on work being "fit for business purpose". (pg. 124)
Question 47
Which of the following is one of Cockburn's 7 anti-patterns for a methodology?
A
Intolerant
B
Heavy
C
Untried
D
Disciplined
Question 47 Explanation: 
Disciplined is a success pattern for a methodology. (pg. 375)
Question 48
The engineer has been given one day to perform the required task to determine if the project is worth investing in. What is this called?
A
Defect Repair
B
Arch Based Spike
C
Estimate stories
D
Risk Based Spike
Question 48 Explanation: 
A risk based spike is used to allow the team to eliminate or minimize a risk. If a risk based spike fails for every possible approach the project reaches a condition as "fast failure" where the cost of failure is away less than failing later. (pg. 293 - 294)
Question 49
Which of the following would you recommend an organization does first when trying to become an "Agile" organization.
A
Do
B
Encourage Others
C
Think
D
Small changes
Question 49 Explanation: 
First they need to "think" meaning individually learning and internalizing agile principles. (pg. 25)
Question 50
What is the best advantage of delivering incrementally?
A
Better communication
B
Better software
C
Reduces amount of rework
D
Reduces cost of change
Question 50 Explanation: 
Delivering incrementally reduces the amount of rework by finding issues earlier. (pg. 108)
Question 51
You have been assigned as Product Owner to a new project with a distributed team. What would be the most beneficial to the teams productivity before the project starts?
A
Bonuses for delivering early
B
Buffer to all estimates
C
Get all team together for kick off meeting
D
Have extra resources available if team members need time off
Question 51 Explanation: 
Having the team get face-face communication for the first few iterations or even the kick-off meeting will beneficial to the team and improve team collaboration. (pg. 225)
Question 52
What question is not answered in the daily stand up:
A
What have I done since the last daily stand up?
B
How any I going to remove this blocker?
C
Are their any impediments?
D
What do I plan on doing today?
Question 52 Explanation: 
The three questions answered in the daily stand-up are: 1. What have I done since the last daily stand up? 2. What do I plan on doing today? 3. Are their any impediments? (pg. 44)
Question 53
What is not one of the 5 Kanban principles?
A
Eliminate waste
B
Limit WIP
C
Visualize the workflow
D
Manage flow
Question 53 Explanation: 
The 5 principles of Kanban are Visualize Workflow, Limit WIP, Manage Flow, Make Process Policies Explicit and Improve Collaborate. (pg. 59)
Question 54
A team member keeps attending the daily stand-up late, what is the best option for the Scrum Master do to stop this from happening?
A
Delay stand up till member present
B
Give member verbal warning
C
Set ground rules
D
Train member in Agile practices
Question 54 Explanation: 
Setting ground rules will ensure everyone realizes the importance of attending the stand up on time. (pg. 309)
Question 55
The project team has spent 3 weeks crating a value stream map but have never included the delay between internal teams. For this reason which metric will be directly effected in the value stream map?
A
Process cycle efficiency time
B
Nonvalue-added time
C
Total cycle time
D
Value-added time
Question 55 Explanation: 
This is the time in the cycle where we find delays, waste and constraints. (pg. 378)
Question 56
Which element is not a part of a user story?
A
The Card
B
The Conversation
C
The Customer
D
The Confirmation
Question 56 Explanation: 
Each story has 3 elements which are called the 3 C's - the card, the conversation and the confirmation. (pg. 267)
Question 57
Approved methods
A
Vacationers
B
Shoppers
C
Participating
D
Explorers
Question 57 Explanation: 
ESVP is a technique used to anonymously identify their attitude towards retrospectives as one of the following: Explorers, Shoppers, Vacationers and Prisoners. (pg. 395)
Question 58
A Sponsor wants to evaluate a 5 year project against 3 projects what financial metric should they use?
A
IRR
B
ROY
C
NPV
D
ROIT
Question 58 Explanation: 
Net Present Value is used to calculate the amount in todays terms. The higher the better value. (pg. 89)
Question 59
A new Scrum Master is creating a list of digital tools that the distributed team can use to communicate effectively which of the following will not be on his list?
A
Osmotic Transmitter
B
Virtual Card Walls
C
Skype
D
Interactive Whiteboard
Question 59 Explanation: 
The Osmotic transmitter is made up. (pg. 228)
Question 60
Select the best form of communication in a project:
A
Email
B
Phone
C
Instant Messenger
D
Video Recording
Question 60 Explanation: 
After face-to-face communication phone is the best communication method. (pg. 163)
Question 61
The team are writing goals for improving the process. Which of the following characteristics should the goals have?
A
Specific, Realistic, Timely
B
Smart, Timely, Attainable
C
Measurable, Attainable, Real
D
Specific, Relevant, Timely
Question 61 Explanation: 
SMART goals are Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Timely. (pg. 401)
Question 62
The primary function of WIP Limits is:
A
Eliminate bottlenecks
B
Improve efficiency of team
C
Calculate Little's Law
D
Limit work in a queue
Question 62 Explanation: 
Work in progress (WIP) limits are used to limit the workload in a queue. (pg. 60)
Question 63
The Fibonacci sequence is used in which tool?
A
Affinity Estimating
B
Ideal Time
C
Story Points
D
T-Shirt Sizing
Question 63 Explanation: 
Story points should be assign in a sequence such as the Fibonacci 0,1,2,3,5,8,13,21,34 etc. to avoid associating stories with hours. (pg. 278)
Question 64
The sponsor is talking to the Product Owner regarding the future of the project as it is ensure if the project still meets the customer needs due to a recent environmental change. The Product Owner can only think how this is going to impact his project. What level of listening is he engaged in?
A
Internal listening
B
Focused listening
C
Active listening
D
Global listening
Question 64 Explanation: 
Active listening has 3 levels internal, focused and global. (pg. 180)
Question 65
You have been tasked with selecting a contract for a project where the scope has been roughly estimated so the schedule variance is expected. What would be the best contract to use for this situation?
A
Graduated fixed price contract
B
DSDM Contract
C
Time and Materials
D
Fixed-price Work Packages
Question 65 Explanation: 
Graduated fixed price contracts are when both parties share some of the risk and reward associated with schedule variance. (pg. 126)
Question 66
Which of the following isn't a brainstorming method:
A
Quiet Writing
B
Round-Robin
C
Wideband
D
Free-for-All
Question 66 Explanation: 
Brainstorming Methods include Round robin, quiet writing, free for all. (pg. 174)
Question 67
Scrum Values
A
Inspection
B
Adaption
C
Simplicity
D
Transparency
Question 67 Explanation: 
The 3 vales of Scrum are Transparency, Adaption and Inspection. (pg. 41)
Question 68
The PO is looking to identify missing stories and prioritize stories for releases what should they do?
A
Business Meeting
B
Planning Poker
C
Story Mapping
D
Backlog grooming
Question 68 Explanation: 
Story mapping is used to categorize stories into functionality and set prioritize stories. (pg. 284)
Question 69
The Scrum Master is running a facilitated workshop technique so Agile stakeholders can better understand a complex issue. What technique would you expect the Scrum Master to implement?
A
Remember the future
B
Buy a Story
C
Prune the Product Tree
D
Bang-for-the-buck
Question 69 Explanation: 
Buy a story is a made collaboration game. (pg. 174)
Question 70
You are assigned a new project team bad need to facilitate a kick-off meeting. What can you expect to be responsible for in this meeting:
A
Goal Setting
B
Timing
C
Meeting Minutes
D
Ground Rules
Question 70 Explanation: 
When facilitating meetings the facilitator is responsible for the goals, rules, timing, assisting. (pg. 182)
Question 71
At the estimation session the team determined that the user story is too big to be delivered and removed from the iteration planning session. This type of user story so best described as:
A
Complex Story
B
Compound Story
C
Decomposition
D
Sliced Story
Question 71 Explanation: 
A complex user story is a story that is too big to be delivered in one sprint because of its inherent uncertainty or because it covers too much functionality. (pg. 267)
Question 72
The customer has set all of the user stories as priority when you tried using a simple priority scheme. What priority scheme would provide further insights?
A
Monopoly money
B
Pareto Chart
C
Fishbone
D
User Story Priority Matrix
Question 72 Explanation: 
Monopoly money is a priority scheme where stakeholders are provided monopoly money matching the budget and asked distribute it among the user stories. (pg. 102)
Question 73
The Product Owner has hired a expert to tester to find any edge case scenarios which could impact the product performance. What type of tests will this expert perform on the product?
A
Usability tests
B
Expert tests
C
Scripted tests
D
Exploratory tests
Question 73 Explanation: 
Exploratory tests are tests that run concurrently with scripted tests to find edge cases. (pg. 131)
Question 74
Management and leadership have different focuses in Agile projects. Who focuses on doing the right things?
A
Both
B
Management
C
Neither
D
Leadership
Question 74 Explanation: 
Management are focused on "doing things right", leadership is concerned with "doing the right things". (pg. 66)
Question 75
Blanchard and Hersey's situational leadership stages in sequence are:
A
Delegating, Supporting, Coaching, Directing
B
Delegating, Coaching, Supporting, Directing
C
Directing, Supporting, Coaching, Delegating
D
Directing, Coaching, Supporting, Delegating
Question 75 Explanation: 
Blanchard and Hersey's situational leadership stages in sequence are Directing, Coaching, Supporting, Delegating (pg. 215)
Question 76
When working with the XP methodology any pair of developers can improve or amend the code, this is known as:
A
Pair Programming
B
Refactoring
C
Collective Code Ownership
D
Continuous Integration
Question 76 Explanation: 
Collective code ownership means multiple people work on all the code, any pair of developers can improve or amend any code. (pg. 51)
Question 77
Which of the following is not one of Dreyfus model of adult skill acquisition?
A
Advanced Beginner
B
Expert
C
Moderately Proficient
D
Novice
Question 77 Explanation: 
Dreyfus model of adult skill acquisition is Novice, Advanced Beginner, Competent, Proficient and Expert. (pg. 212)
Question 78
What is not a XP Value?
A
Respect
B
Adaptable
C
Simplicity
D
Courage
Question 78 Explanation: 
The 5 XP values are Simplicity, Communication, Feedback, Courage and Respect. (pg. 48)
Question 79
Team members are having a heated argument which has got personal. Which level of conflict is this?
A
Level 4
B
Level 3
C
Level 2
D
Level 1
Question 79 Explanation: 
This is level 3 - contest, where people get personal where winning is more important than a solution. (pg. 183)
Question 80
EMV Curve is better than a gantt chart because
A
It is a leading indicator
B
It is Agile
C
It illustrates cost and time
D
It illustrates scope and time
Question 80 Explanation: 
EMV chart is a leading indicator which is why it is better than gantt chart. (pg. 92)
Question 81
A engineer has been out sick for 2 days, what type of variation is this?
A
Traditional Cause
B
Common Cause
C
Special Cause
D
Exceptional Cause
Question 81 Explanation: 
Common Causes: These are issues that are day to day differences to doing work. (pg. 338)
Question 82
Which stage of Tuckmans team formation can you expect the team to be in when you are delegating tasks?
A
Performing
B
Norming
C
Storming
D
Forming
Question 82 Explanation: 
When the team are performing the project manager will be able to delegate tasks as the team will be performing highly and need little support. (pg. 213)
Question 83
4 KPIs used in Agile are:
A
Rate of Progress
B
Likely Completion Date
C
Iteration velocity
D
Likely Costs Remaining
Question 83 Explanation: 
4 KPIs used in Agile are rate of progress, remaining work, likely completion date and likely costs remaining. (pg. 97)
Question 84
The Scrum Master is setting the tone of the meeting and getting the team on board. Which technique should they not be using?
A
Working Agreements
B
ESVP
C
Check In
D
Triple Nickels
Question 84 Explanation: 
Set the stage techniques are Check In. Focus On/Off, ESVP and Working Agreements. (pg. 395)
Question 85
A co-located team have a major advantage over distributed teams which is very difficult to simulate using technology, what is this?
A
Osmotic communication
B
Informal Communication
C
Tacit Knowledge
D
Having a war room
Question 85 Explanation: 
Osmotic communication means that information flows into the background hearing of members of the team, so that they pick up relevant information as though by osmosis. (pg223)
Question 86
Which Agile team role does not belong in this group
A
Scrum Master
B
Team Leader
C
Product Owner
D
Coach
Question 86 Explanation: 
The Product Owner is to benefit the business, the others are their for the team. (pg. 200)
Question 87
Which activity won't help us find issues earlier on the cost of change curve?
A
Continuous Integration
B
Modelling
C
Risk Adjusted Backlog
D
Pair Programming
Question 87 Explanation: 
The only option not concerned with finding issues is a risk adjusted backlog. (pg. 324)
Question 88
The definition of done is created with the input of everyone except?
A
Product Owner
B
Scrum Master
C
Sponsor
D
Development Team
Question 88 Explanation: 
The whole team including development team, scrum master an product owner create the definition of done. (pg. 41)
Question 89
Which of the following is a type of Agile hybrid model?
A
Xpban
B
Scrum ban
C
Leanban
D
Agilefall
Question 89 Explanation: 
Scrum ban is an Agile management methodology describing hybrids of Scrum and Kanban and was originally designed as a way to transition from Scrum to Kanban. (pg. 372)
Question 90
Which of the following do not have a team development model:
A
Dreyfus
B
Shu-Ha-Ri
C
Tuckman
D
Cockburn
Question 90 Explanation: 
Dreyfus model of adult skill acquisition, Tuchman team formation and development, Shu-Ha-Ri of skill mastery (pg. 211-213)
Question 91
How would you best describe the Definition of Done
A
Checklist of elements
B
Developed, Documented, Tested
C
Live in Production
D
Delivered
Question 91 Explanation: 
Definition of Done is a checklist of elements that need to be completed for the task to considered done. (pg. 157)
Question 92
When writing user stories what characteristics should they not have?
A
Independent
B
Valuable
C
Negotiable
D
Small
Question 92 Explanation: 
When creating a user story it should follow a set of characteristics which can be easily remembered using the INVEST mnemonic... I: Independent N: Negotiable V: Valuable E: Estimable S: Specific T: Timely (pg. 267)
Question 93
A team lead has been tasked to research a technology the team are planning on using in the next sprint. What is the name of this task?
A
Arch Based Spike
B
Story Research
C
Risk Based Spike
D
Tech Review
Question 93 Explanation: 
A architectural spike is when research/investigation needs to be conducted on a area of the system, technology or application. (pg. 151)
Question 94
Which level would you expect the highest level of conflict?
A
Performing
B
Forming
C
Norming
D
Storming
Question 94 Explanation: 
When a team are storming they are getting used to working with each other and having constructive arguments. (pg. 215)
Question 95
What is the process the team follows when iteration planning?
A
Discuss, estimate, define acceptance, break into stories, complete
B
Discuss, select, define acceptance, break into tasks, estimate
C
Discuss, estimate, define acceptance, break into tasks, complete
D
Create, select, define acceptance, break into tasks, estimate
Question 95 Explanation: 
Iteration planning process is discuss, select, define acceptance, break into tasks, estimate. (pg. 291)
Question 96
The team need to gather feedback on the proposed system and asked the Product Owner to provide a low-fidelity prototype so they can model their solution. What technique are they proposing the PO use?
A
Definition of Done
B
Persona
C
Agile Modelling
D
Wireframe
Question 96 Explanation: 
Wireframes are a form of low-fidelity prototyping". (pg. 160)
Question 97
In MoSCoW the M stands for:
A
Must
B
Maybe
C
Most
D
Might
Question 97 Explanation: 
MoSCoW represents Must have, Should have, Could have, Would like to have. (pg. 102)
Question 98
In acceptance test-driven development what is the correct sequence of stages?
A
Discuss, Estimate, Develop, Demo
B
Define, Distil, Develop, Demo
C
Define, Estimate, Develop, Demo
D
Discuss, Distil, Develop, Demo
Question 98 Explanation: 
In acceptance test-driven development the correct stages are discuss, distil, develop and demo. (pg. 136)
Question 99
"Money for nothing" in Agile contracting created by Jeff Sutherland means:
A
Customer has work with team on every iteration
B
Changes are free
C
Customer can terminate project early
D
Changes are already factored in
Question 99 Explanation: 
"Money for Nothing, Change for Free" is a promoted structure by Jeff Sutherland which suggests an early termination options and process models that allows flexibility. (pg. 125)
Question 100
Expected Monetary Value is determined using which of the following:
A
Impact x Probability
B
Assigned by PO
C
Threats x Cost
D
Risk x Severity
Question 100 Explanation: 
Expected Monetary Value = Impact x Probability (pg. 346)
Question 101
The customer has described the feature as best as they could to the product owner who created the story. The developer works on the story but it turns out to be completely different to what the customer expected. What best describes this situation
A
Gulf of evaluation
B
Bad User Story
C
Fast Failure
D
Common Cause
Question 101 Explanation: 
Gulf of evaluation is a when mismatches arise on what a person envisions and what they describe, that is why Agile integrates so many feedback cycles into their processes. (pg. 152)
Question 102
Which of the following is not one of the primary servant leadership duties?
A
Shield team from interruptions
B
Carry food and water
C
Train new team members on Agile
D
Communicate the project vision
Question 102 Explanation: 
Train new team members on Agile process is not primary servant leader duties. (pg. 68)
Question 103
In Agile Fail Fasting should always:
A
Be avoided
B
Done by Sponsor
C
Be recommended
D
Done in planning
Question 103 Explanation: 
If proof of concept and all other approaches aren't successful you reach condition called "fail-fast" which is recommended in Agile instead of failing at the end like Waterfall projects. (pg. 294)
Question 104
Which chart would the PO look at if they wanted to know the impact of modifying the scope of a project?
A
Burn down Chart
B
Burn up Chart
C
Story Histogram
D
Scope Risk Chart
Question 104 Explanation: 
The Burn up chart displays adjusted scope the most effectively as it will it demonstrates scope on x-Axis ideally moving upwards. If extra scope added it will effectively show the forecasted impact. (pg. 232)
Question 105
Trend analysis is what type of metric?
A
Unreliable Metric
B
Lead Metric
C
Useful Metric
D
Lag Metric
Question 105 Explanation: 
Trend analysis is a lead metric as it helps forecast issues based on trends. (pg. 342)
Question 106
What is an S-Curve?
A
A cumulative flow chart tracking velocity
B
An earned value management diagram
C
A gantt chart tracking cost over time
D
A graph that tracks a variable over time
Question 106 Explanation: 
A S-curve is a graph that tracks a variable over time. (pg. 92)
Question 107
Which of the following is not a form of frequent validation and verification?
A
Unit Test
B
Stand-up Meeting
C
Retrospective
D
Iteration Demo
Question 107 Explanation: 
Retrospective does not provide validation and verification. (pg. 129)
Question 108
What is not a core principle of Agile
A
Continuous improvement
B
Continuous delivery
C
Welcome learning
D
Welcome change
Question 108 Explanation: 
Agile welcomes change but encourages learning through discovery. (pg. 23)
Question 109
A new engineer has failed to refactor their code by the end of the sprint and didn't inform the PO as it was not noticed in the iteration review. What will be a biggest impact of this?
A
Technical Debt
B
Business Complaints
C
Customer Complaints
D
Poor Team Morale
Question 109 Explanation: 
Technical debt is a consequences of poor system design, software architecture or software development within a codebase. (pg. 326)
Question 110
Mark a Project Manager of a strict muli-national company, is using Kaizen. Which of the following cycle would he be using to implement improvements?
A
Plan-Do-Check-Act
B
Plan-Develop-Check-Learn
C
Kaizen
D
Plan-Develop-Evaluate-Learn
Question 110 Explanation: 
Kaizen is the term for making small changes. The Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) is the cycle developed by Edward Deming for implementing small improvements. (pg. 367)
Question 111
What is not a failure mode identified by Cockburn
A
We are malleable
B
We are creatures of habit
C
We are inconsistent
D
We make mistakes
Question 111 Explanation: 
"We are malleable" is a success mode not a failure mode. (pg. 328)
Question 112
Which of the following is not one the stakeholder engagement principles:
A
Show progress and capabilities
B
Get the right stakeholders
C
Include in estimation sessions
D
Actively manage stakeholders
Question 112 Explanation: 
Stakeholders should not be included in the estimation sessions.
Question 113
Which of the following best describes affinity estimating?
A
Used to triangulate estimates
B
Groups stories by functionality
C
T-shirt sizing
D
Anonymous Estimating
Question 113 Explanation: 
Affinity estimating is a technique where each story is placed on a table and one by one a team member is given an opportunity to place a card in line or adjusting a card in the line already. (pg. 280)
Question 114
Which of the following is not one of Poppendicks list of seven wastes?
A
Work completed
B
Motion
C
Extra Features
D
Defects
Question 114 Explanation: 
Work completed is clearly not a waste as it is completed. (pg. 85)
Question 115
Which charts shows the number of tasks completed each day of the iteration to monitor the progress?
A
Risk Burn down Chart
B
Task Burn up Chart
C
Task Burn down Chart
D
Risk Burn up Chart
Question 115 Explanation: 
The burn down chart, which shows the number of tasks completed each day of the iteration to monitor progress. (pg. 232)
Question 116
The team are using fist of five voting and one team member has shown 5 fingers. What does this signify?
A
Stop I'm against this decision
B
I object and want to discuss the issue
C
I have concerns and want to discuss
D
I totally support this issue
Question 116 Explanation: 
5 fingers signifies "Stop I'm against this decision". (pg. 187)
Question 117
Working collaboratively promotes problem solving rather than:
A
Valuing participation
B
Procedural decision making
C
Building relationships and understanding
D
Understanding complex problems and process.
Question 117 Explanation: 
Working collaboratively promotes problem solving rather than procedural decision making. (pg. 171)
Question 118
A new team member is trying to work the printer but doesn't realize that it needs to plugged into a certain extension lead or else it cuts out the coffee machine. This knowledge is best described as?
A
Explicit Knowledge
B
Tacit Knowledge
C
Codified Knowledge
D
Formal Knowledge
Question 118 Explanation: 
Tacit knowledge
Question 119
The project team does not use which of the following feedback methods in XP?
A
Simple Testing
B
Refactoring
C
Pair Programming
D
Testing
Question 119 Explanation: 
There is no such practice as simple testing in XP. (pg. 388)
Question 120
Two engineers have used their coding skills to design an algorithm to improve testing. This is scenario is an example of what failure mode?
A
Gather feedback
B
Creatures of habit
C
Making mistakes
D
Inventing rather than research
Question 120 Explanation: 
The engineers invented a algorithm instead of researching. (pg. 328)
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PMI-ACP® Exam Prep

Complete your PMI-ACP Exam Prep with our Free PMI-ACP Practice Exam. The exam will be updated monthly updated based on people’s results so easier questions can be removed and replaced with more difficult questions. Also please give us any feedback yo might have in the comments section of the exam.

Instructions for Free PMI-ACP®  Practice Exam

  1. You will see one question at a time if you want to skip click the bottom arrow.
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How I passed The PMI-ACP® exam

After learning a lot after the PMP® exam I approached the PMI-ACP® exam a lot better prepared. My strategy was based on 3 things:

Having Correct PMI-ACP® Resources

After making the mistake of relying on the PMBOK® first time round I now understand the importance of reading a book that was written to help the test taker to pass not a reference book. My main study book was the PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Second Edition: A Course in a Book for Passing the PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP) Exam

Taking Plenty of PMI-ACP® Practice Exams

Take as many practice exams as you can prior to the exam and try to simulate the test experience as much as possible ie.set aside 3 hours to take 120 question exam and apply the exam day strategy.

The best exam I took was the free exam in the study book I mentioned above by Mike Griffiths. Other exams I would recommend are…

Get 1 Insight Every Monday

Have PMI-ACP® Exam Day Strategy

Even though the exam is shorter you still should have a plan for exam day. You need to get to the center 20 minutes before you are scheduled to start the exam. You have an opportunity to write down any notes like 12 principles and other relevant information.

Aim to complete 60 questions in the first hour, next 60 in the second hour and then review all in last hour. I would recommend highlighting any question you have any doubt about as you will have plenty time to review after.

Best of Luck in the PMI-ACP® exam and don’t forget to add a comment to this PMI-ACP® practice exam if it helped you pass.

Kind Regards,

Shane